Checklist for Monitoring Alcohol and Other Drug Confidentiality Compliance
Technical Assistance Publication (TAP) Series 18
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Checklist for Monitoring Alcohol and Other Drug Confidentiality Compliance
I. DOES 42 C.F.R. PART 2 APPLY?
- A. WAS THE ALLEGED DISCLOSURE MADE BY A "PROGRAM"?
Issue: Is the individual or entity that made the
alleged disclosure a "program" covered by 42 C.F.R. Part 2?
- Does the individual or entity that allegedly made the disclosure
receive Federal financial assistance in any one of the following ways:
-
- direct Federal funding; Y__ N__
- is operated by the Federal Government or by a State or local government
that receives funds that could be (but are not necessarily) spent for the
alcohol and other drug (AOD) program; Y__ N__
- Federal block grants or other funds channeled through State or local
government;
Y__ N__
- licensure, certification, or registration by the Federal Government, for
example: Y__N__
- authorization to conduct methadone maintenance treatment;
- certification for Medicare reimbursement; or
- authorization to dispense a substance under the Controlled Substances
Act for use in treating AOD abuse.
-
- exemption from Federal taxation? Y__ N__
- If the answer to any of the questions is "yes," go to
question 2.
- If the answer to all of the questions is "no," the
individual or entity that allegedly made the disclosure is not a "program"
as defined by the regualtions. Go to question 7 to determine whether the entity
is otherwise bound by the regulations.
- Was the alleged disclosure made by a general medical care
facility or a unit of a general medical care facility? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 3.
- If "no," go to question 6.
- Does the general medical care facility (or unit of such
facility) that allegedly made the disclosure hold itself out as providing and actually provide AOD abuse diagnosis, treatment, counseling, or referral for
treatment? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 8.
- If "no," go to question 4.
- Was the alleged disclosure made by a staff member of a
general medical care facility whose primary function is the provision of AOD
abuse diagnosis, counseling, treatment, or referral for treatment? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 5.
- If "no," the alleged disclosure was not made by a "program"
as defined by the regulations. Go to question 7 to determine whether the
regulations otherwise apply.
- Is such staff member identified as having the
primary function of providing AOD abuse diagnosis, counseling, treatment, or
referral for treatment? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 8.
- If "no," the individual who made the alleged disclosure is
not a "program" as defined by the regulations. Go to question 7 to
determine whether the individual is otherwise bound by the regulations.
- Was the alleged disclosure made by an individual or entity
that holds itself out as providing and does provide AOD abuse diagnosis,
treatment, counseling, or referral for treatment? Y__N__
- If "yes," go to question 8.
- If "no," the individual or entity that made the alleged
disclosure is not a "program" as defined by the regulations. Go to
question 7 to determine whether the regulations otherwise apply.
- Does State law, regulation, or licensing requirement bind
the individual or entity to the standards of 42 C.F.R. Part 2? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the individual or entity that allegedly made the
disclosure should be considered a "program" bound by the regulations.
Go to Section I.B.
- If "no," see Section V to determine whether the individual
or entity that allegedly made the disclosure is otherwise bound by the
regulations because it received patient-identifying information from an AOD
program.
- Was the information that was allegedly disclosed maintained
in connection with the Department of Veterans Affairs' provision of hospital
care, nursing home care, domiciliary care and medical services under Title 38 of
the U.S. Code? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the regulations do not apply. Consult 38 U.S.C.
4132 and the regulations issued under that authority by the Secretary of
Veterans Affairs.
- If "no," go to question 9.
- Was the information that was allegedly disclosed obtained by
any component of the Armed Forces during a period when the patient was subject
to the Uniform Code of Military Justice? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 10.
- If "no," the individual or entity that made the alleged
disclosure is a "program." Go to Section I.B.
- Was the alleged disclosure made within the Armed Forces or
between the Armed Forces and those components of the Department of Veterans
Affairs furnishing health care to veterans? Y__ N__
- If "yes," stop here because the individual or entity that
made the alleged disclosure is not a "program" under the regulations.
The regulations do not apply.
- If "no," the individual or entity that made the alleged
disclosure is a "program." Go to Section I.B.
Summary of the Rule
The Federal regulations only apply to "programs" as defined under
the law (§ 2.11). "programs" are organizations or individual
practitioners who:
- receive Federal assistanceSuch
assistance exists when the program is directly funded by the Federal Government,
is operated by the Federal Government or by a State or local government that
receives Federal funds that could be (but are not necessarily) spent for the AOD
program, is registered or certified by the Federal Government (e.g., certified
for Medicare reimbursement), receives Federal block grant or other funds through
a State or local government, is licensed directly by the Federal Government
(e.g., to dispense methadone), or is exempted from taxes under the Federal
Internal Revenue Code (i.e., is a not-for-profit tax-exempt corporation); and
- provide and hold themselves out as providing AOD diagnosis, counseling,
treatment, or referral for treatment. The regulations apply to both free-standing programs and programs that
are part of larger organizations, such as a detoxification unit within a general
hospital, an AOD clinic within a county mental health department, an AOD unit
within an employee assistance program or student assistance program, or an AOD
program within a managed care program that provides direct medical services (§
2.12(e)(1)).
With respect to general medical care facilities, in addition
to identified AOD units, the regulations apply to medical personnel or other
staff whose primary function is the provision of AOD abuse diagnosis,
counseling, treatment, or referral for treatment and who are identified as such
(§ 2.11). The regulations do not apply, however, to hospital emergency room
personnel unless their primary function is the provision of the AOD services
listed in number 2 above and the person is identified as providing such
services or the emergency room has promoted itself to the community as a
provider of such services (§ 2.12).
The regulations apply to all program employees, volunteers,
student interns, former staff, and executive, administrative, clinical, and
support personnel.
The regulations do not apply to information on AOD patients maintained
in connection with various Department of Veterans Affairs programs or to
information maintained by the Armed Forces if the disclosures are within the
Armed Forces or between the Armed Forces and the Department of Veterans Affairs
(§ 2.12(c)(1)-(2)).
Some States have enacted laws or regulations that require certain AOD
facilities to adhere to the requirements of the Federal regulations even if they
are not otherwise bound by them. Moreover, some third parties (entities that are
not AOD programs) may become bound by the regulations if they receive
patient-identifying information from an AOD program. See Section V for a
discussion of such third parties.
- B. DOES THE COMPLAINT PERTAIN TO A "PATIENT"?
- Issue:Is the person whose confidentiality allegedly
was breached a "patient." whose records are confidential under 42
C.F.R. Part 2?
- Did the person whose confidentiality was
allegedly breached ever apply for or receive from an AOD program any of
the following:
-
- a diagnostic examination or interview?Y__N__
- treatment or counseling? or Y__N__
- referral for treatment? Y__ N__
- If the answer to any of the questions is "yes," he or she is
a "patient" protected by the regulations. Go to Section II.
- If the answer to all of the questions is no, then he or she is not a "patient."
Stop here because the regulations do not apply.
Summary of the Rule
Even if the alleged disclosure was made by a "program," the
regulations only apply if the person whose confidentiality allegedly was
breached was a "patient." A "patient." is anyone who has
applied for or received a diagnostic examination or interview, counseling,
treatment, or referral for treatment for AOD abuse from a program (§ 2.11).
Applicants for such AOD services are covered by the regulations even if they
fail to show for an initial appointment that they arranged or, having been
interviewed or diagnosed, elect not to follow up or enter treatment.
The regulations protect current, former, and deceased patients.
II.WAS THERE A "DISCLOSURE" OF PATIENT-IDENTIFYING
INFORMATION?
Issue:Did the disclosure reveal "patient-identifying information?"
- Did the person making the disclosure
indicate that:
-
- he or she was from an AOD abuse program? or Y__ N__
- the person about whom the disclosure was made was an AOD abuser or had ever
applied for or received diagnosis, treatment, counseling, or referral for
treatment?
Y__ N__
- If the answer to both questions is "no," the program did not
make a "disclosure" of patient identifying information. Stop here
because there was no violation.
- If the answer to either question is "yes," go to question 2.
- Did the person making the disclosure state the name of the
patient or reveal other information from which the patient could be identified?
Y__ N__
- If "yes," there was a "disclosure" of
patient-identifying information. Go to Section III to determine whether the
disclosure was authorized.
- If "no," there was no "disclosure" of
patient-identifying information. Stop here because there was no violation.
Summary of the Rule
The Federal regulations generally prohibit programs from disclosing "patient-identifying
information." "Patient-identifying information" means any
information that identifies a patient as (i) having applied for or received
AOD-related services (diagnosis, treatment, counseling, or referral for
treatment), or (ii) being an AOD abuser (§ 2.11, 2.12).
By prohibiting "disclosures," the regulations do not merely refer
to explicit statements, such as that a specified person is a patient or is an
AOD abuser. Rather, the term "disclosure" includes implicit
disclosures, such as the following:
- allowing a receptionist to confirm that a particular person is a
patient, even if the caller or visitor says that he or she is the patient's
family member and knows the patient attends the program;
- sending a patient a letter in an envelope that suggests that the
addressee may be a patient;
- faxing a letter revealing or suggesting patient status to the
patient's workplace, on the program's stationary;
- faxing any patient-identifying information about a patient to the
wrong fax number;
- leaving a telephone message revealing or suggesting patient status
with a patient's roommate or on a patient's answering machine where another
person may hear the message;
- disclosing the patient's name and the fact that the patient attended a
program to a bill collection agency, attorney, or a small claims court;
- having a program counselor appear at a patient's workplace or home and
revealing his or her relationship with the patient to someone else;
- disclosing descriptive or anecdotal material from which a patient's
identity may be inferred (e.g., by referring to a patient as "the Mayor's
daughter");
- producing and identifying a patient when the police arrive at the
program with an arrest warrant, but without a valid court order; and
- permitting the police to have access to patient records, without first
protesting, when the police arrive at the program with a search warrant, but
without a valid court order.
- The general prohibition against disclosing "patient-identifying
information" does not mean that programs may never disclose their patients'
names. If a program can disclose a patient's name, address, or even telephone
number without indicating that the person has ever applied for or received
AOD-related diagnosis, treatment or counseling, the program may do so without
violating the Federal regulations. Such disclosures are possible primarily when
the program is part of a larger organization, such as a general hospital, and,
therefore, can use the name of the hospital when making the disclosure.
Similarly, if a program has a physician who also maintains a separate office,
the physician could make a disclosure about a patient without identifying the
patient's participation in an AOD program. (In doing so, however, providers must
be mindful not to violate State laws regarding doctor or therapistpatient
privilege.)
- Another way to avoid disclosing patient-identifying information is to
make a disclosure anonymously. Thus, if a patient threatened to harm his or her
spouse, and a court order, consent form or other authorization under the
regulations could not be feasibly used, the program could make an anonymous
telephone call to the spouse or even the police. The program could disclose the
patient's name but not the fact that the patient is in an AOD program. Again,
the program should be careful not to violate any State laws regarding
confidential communications between therapists and patients.
III. IF THERE WAS A DISCLOSURE, WAS THERE PROPER
AUTHORIZATION?
- A.CONSENT FORMS
Issue: Was the disclosure authorized by a valid consent
form?
- Did the consent form contain all the
following nine required elements of 42 C.F.R. Part 2?
-
- name of the program making the disclosure? Y__ N__
- recipient of the information? Y__ N__
- purpose of the disclosure? Y__ N__
- information to be released? Y__ N__
- revocation clause? Y__ N__
- If "no," was the patient mandated into the program by the
criminal justice system as a condition of the disposition of the patient's
criminal proceeding? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the consent can be irrevocable for the duration of
the patient's criminal justice status (unless a State statute provides for an
automatic expiration). Mark "O.K." in the "yes" blank next
to "revocation clause," above. If "no," the consent must
state that it is revocable. If it does not so state, check "no" in the
blank next to "revocation clause," above.
-
- expiration date or condition? Y__ N__
- date the consent form is signed? Y__ N__
- signature of the actual patient (as opposed to the patient's parent or
legal representative)?
- If "yes" (meaning that you marked "yes" or "O.K."
next to all of the nine elements), go to question 1-a.
- If "no," (meaning that at least one "no," was
checked next to the nine elements, without a corresponding "O.K."), go
to question 2.
- Is the patient a minor? Y__ N__
If "yes," go to question 8.
If "no," go to question 11.
- Was any element missing from the consent form aside from the
patient's signature? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the consent form is not valid. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If "no," go to question 3.
- Has the patient been adjudicated incompetent? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 3-a.
- If "no," go to question 4.
- Is the form signed by the patient's guardian or other person
authorized under state law to act on the patient's behalf? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 11.
- If "no," the consent form is not valid. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Is the patient deceased? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 4-a.
- If "no," go to question 5.
- Is the form signed by the executor or administrator of the
patient's estate or other personal representative appointed under State law or,
if none, then the patient's spouse or, if none, then by any responsible member
of the patient's family? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 11.
- If "no," the consent form is not valid. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Is the patient is a minor? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 6.
- If "no," the consent form is not valid. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the disclosure made to the minor's parent, guardian, or
other person authorized under State law to act on the minor's behalf? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 7.
- If "no," the disclosure was not authorized under the consent
rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Is the patient a minor who was applying for services (as
opposed to receiving services), and the program director determined that the
minor applicant:
- (a) lacked capacity to make rational decision on whether to consent to
the disclosure and
- (b)that the applicant's situation posed a substantial threat to the
life or physical well-being of the applicant or any other individual that could
be reduced by communicating relevant facts to the minor's parent, guardian, or
other person authorized under State law to act on the minor's behalf? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the regulations
because the minor's consent was not necessary.
- If "no," the disclosure was not authorized under the consent
rule because other than the narrow exception covered in this question, minors
must always sign consent forms. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure
was otherwise authorized.
- Does the State require parental consent for treatment? Y__
N__
- If "yes," go to question 9.
- If "no," the consent form need only be signed by the minor.
The disclosure was authorized under the consent rule.
- Was the disclosure made to the minor's parent, guardian, or
other person authorized under State law to act on the minor's behalf? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized under the consent
rule.
- If "no," go to question 10.
- Did the consent form also contain the signature of the
parent, guardian, or other person authorized under State law to act on the
minor's behalf? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 11.
- If "no," the disclosure was not authorized under the consent
rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Does the person whose confidentiality was allegedly
breached (or other signatories on the consent form) claim to have revoked his or
her consent, either through an oral or written revocation? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 12.
- If "no," go to question 15.
- Was the patient mandated into treatment by the criminal
justice system as a condition of the disposition of the patient's criminal
proceeding? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 13.
- If "no," go to question 14.
- Does the consent form state that it is irrevocable for a
specified period of time? Y__ N__
- If "yes," any purported revocation was not valid. Go to
question 15.
- If "no," go to question 14.
- Is there any written evidence of such revocation, for
example, a notation to that effect on the consent form or elsewhere in the
patient's record, or a letter written by the patient? Y__ N__
- If "yes," and yet the disclosure was made, the disclosure
did not fall under the "consent" rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If "no," there should be further investigation to determine
whether the patient in fact revoked his or her consent. If the investigation
reveals that such revocation did occur, then the disclosure did not fall under
the "consent" rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was
otherwise authorized. If the investigation reveals that there was no revocation,
go to question 15.
- Was any information on the consent form added or altered
after the patient
signed it? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 16.
- If "no," go to question 17.
- Did the patient initial or otherwise give written
authorization for the additions or
changes? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 17.
- If "no," the consent form is not valid. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the disclosure within the scope of the consent form?
Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 18.
- If "no," the disclosure was not authorized by the consent
rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the disclosure followed by a notice prohibiting
redisclosure? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the consent rule.
- If "no," the disclosure was not authorized by the consent
rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the Rule
Generally, a program may disclose any information about a patient if the
patient authorizes the disclosure by signing a valid consent form ('§ 2.31,
2.33). A consent form under the Federal regulations is much more detailed than a
general medical release. It must contain all of the following nine elements. If
the form is missing even one of these elements, it is not valid:
- the name or general designation of the program making the disclosure;
- the recipient of the information;
- Although the recipient should not be as general as an entire agency or
department, it need not be as specific as the name of an individual. Instead,
the consent form may describe the recipient's job title and/or job functions.
- It is permissible to list more than one recipient on a single consent form
and to authorize disclosures between and among all the parties listed. When
doing such multiple-party consents, however, it is important that the "information"
and "purpose" and all other elements of the form (see below) be the
same for all of the authorized disclosures.
- the purpose of the disclosure;
- The purpose should be narrowly described and should correspond with
the information to be released. The purpose should never be as broad as "for
all client care."
- the information to be released;
- The information should be described as exactly and narrowly as
possible in light of the purpose of the release. Releases for "any and all
pertinent information" are not valid;
- that the patient understands that he or she may revoke the consent at
any timeorally or in writingexcept to the extent that action has
been taken in reliance on it;
- A consent for a patient referred by the criminal justice system, however,
may be made irrevocable for a period of time (§ 2.35). (But note that some
State statutes and regulations provide for the automatic expiration of such
consents after 60 or 90 days.)
- When a patient revokes a consent form, the program is advised to note the
date of the revocation clearly on the consent form and to draw an X through the
form.
- the date or condition upon which the consent expires, if it has not
been revoked earlier;
- Although the Federal regulations do not provide for any time limit on the
validity of a consent form, some State laws provide for the automatic expiration
of consents after a certain period of time.
- the date the consent form is signed; and
- the signature of the patient.
- If the patient has died, the executor or administrator of the estate, or if
there is none, the spouse or, if none, then any responsible member of the
patient's family may sign (§ 2.15(b)(2)).
- No consent is needed to disclose information relating to the cause of death
to such agencies as are empowered to collect vital statistics or inquire into
causes of death (§ 2.15(b)(1)).
- If the patient is an adjudicated incompetent, a guardian or other person
authorized by State law to act on the patient's behalf may sign (§
2.15(a)(1)).
- If the patient is a minor, the patient generally must sign the consent formeven
if the disclosure is to the minor's parent.
For example, if State law
requires a program to obtain a parent's consent in order to treat a minor, the
minor must sign a consent form authorizing the disclosure to the parent (§
2.14(b)-(c)). The only exception is for minors who are applying for AOD services
and yet lack the capacity to make a rational decision about whether to sign a
consent form authorizing a disclosure that the program director determines is
necessary to reduce a threat to the life or physical well-being of the applicant
or anyone else (§ 2.14(d)).
In addition to the minor's signature,
the parent's or other legal guardian's signature is only required if State law
requires parental authorization for treating a minor. If the State permits the
minor to be treated without the legal guardian's authorization, the minor's
signature alone may authorize a disclosure (§ 2.14(b)-(c)).
- A client should never sign or be requested to sign a consent form before
all of the blanks have been filled in.
- If any changes are made to a consent form after a client signs it, the
client should initial the changes when they are made to indicate that the
patient understands and agrees to the changes.
Whenever a disclosure is made
pursuant to a consent, it must be accompanied by a written notice prohibiting
redisclosure (§ 2.32). The written statement, which can be in the form of a
separate sheet of paper or a rubber stamp on the disclosed document, warns the
recipient that the information disclosed is protected by Federal law and may not
be redisclosed except with the patient's consent or under other authorization.
The language in the warning must be identical to that set forth in § 2.32
of the regulations. The prohibition on redisclosure notice must be sent to the
recipient even if the disclosure was made orally.
Copies of all
consent forms should be kept in the patient's file.
- B. INTERNAL COMMUNICATIONS
Issue: Was the disclosure an authorized internal
communication?
- Was the disclosure made to someone:
-
- within the program? or Y__ N__
- in an entity having direct administrative control over a program? Y__ N__
- If the answer to either question is "yes," go to question 2.
- If the answer to both questions is "no," the disclosure did not
fall within the internal communications rule. Stop here or determine whether the
disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the recipient need the information
in connection with his or her duties arising out of the provision of AOD abuse
diagnosis, counseling, treatment, or referral for treatment? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the internal
communications rule. (If the disclosure was made to an entity having direct
administrative control over a program, see Section V to determine whether the
administrative entity complied with the law.)
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall within the internal
communications rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise
authorized.
Summary of the Rule
Patient-identifying information may be disclosed within a program, or to an
entity having direct administrative control over a program, if the recipient of
the disclosure needs the information in connection with his or her duties
arising out of the provision of AOD abuse diagnosis, counseling, treatment, or
referral for treatment (§ 2.12(c)(3)).
"Within the program" means within the organization or
organizational unit that provides AOD-related services. Thus for entities that
only provide AOD treatment in part, they may only share patient-identifying
information within that part. For example, the staff of a detoxification unit
within a hospital may share patient-identifying information with one anotherand
with hospital administrators with direct supervisory oversight for the programwhere
such sharing of information is needed to provide AOD-related services to the
program's patients. The program may also share information, as necessary, with,
for example, the hospital's recordkeeping or billing departments, because those
administrative units are integral to the program's functioning. However, the
program may not freely share patient-identifying information with other parts or
units of the hospital (because they are not part of the "program" or
an entity with direct administrative control over the program). Note, however,
that such communications are possible with the patient's proper consent (see
Section I.A).
Anyone within or in direct administrative control of a program that receives
patient-identifying information is bound by the confidentiality regulations and
may not redisclose the information except as allowed by the regulations (§
2.12(d)(2)(ii)).
- C. QUALIFIED SERVICE ORGANIZATION AGREEMENTS
Issue: Was the disclosure made pursuant to a qualified service
organization agreement (QSOA)?
- Was the alleged disclosure made to an entity (individual or
agency) that provides services to the program (a "service organization")?
Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 2.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall within the QSOA rule.
Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the outside service organization have a written
agreement with the program (a "QSOA")? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 3.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall under the QSOA rule.
Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the QSOA state that in receiving patient-identifying
information, the qualified service organization:
-
- became bound by the Federal confidentiality regulations? and
Y__ N__
-
- agreed to resist in judicial proceedings, if necessary, any
unauthorized efforts to obtain access to patient records? Y__ N__
- If the answer to both questions is "yes," go to question 4.
- If the answer to either question is "no," the QSOA was not
valid. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the service organization that received the information
also an AOD program? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 5.
- If "no," the program's disclosure was authorized by the QSOA
rule. (See Section V to determine whether the qualified service organization
redisclosed the information in violation of the regulations.)
- Did the service organization that is also an AOD program
need the information to perform an AOD-related service? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the QSOA was not proper, according to a legal
opinion issued by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS). Stop here
or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If "no," the program's disclosure was authorized by the QSOA
rule. (See Section V to determine whether the qualified service organization
redisclosed the information in violation of the regulations.)
Summary of the Rule
Programs may disclose patient-identifying information to a "qualified
service organization" without the patient's consent (§ 2.12(c)(4)). A
"qualified service organization" is a person or agency that provides
services to the program, such as data processing, dosage preparation, laboratory
analyses, vocational counseling, or legal, medical, accounting, or other
professional services that the program does not provide for itself.
The department of health can also be a "service organization" if
it provides health-related services to the program. Examples of such services
include offering tests for HIV, tuberculosis, and sexually transmitted diseases;
providing treatment for communicable diseases; or monitoring the patient's case
to ensure that he or she is receiving treatment. Managed care companies can, in
limited circumstances, also be "service organizations," provided they
are providing a service, such as legal, medical, accounting, or laboratory
services. For example, if individuals enrolled in a managed care program can
receive AOD treatment from any certified AOD program, but must receive primary
health care from the managed care provider's staff physicians, the managed care
provider could be considered a "service organization"; it is rendering
medical services.
In order to receive patient-identifying information, the "service
organization" must enter into a written agreement with the program in which
it acknowledges that it is bound by the Federal confidentiality regulations,
promises not to redisclose patient-identifying information to which it becomes
privy, and promises to resist unauthorized efforts to gain access to any
patient-identifying information in its possession (§ 2.11).
Once the program and the outside agency have entered into this QSOA, the
program may freely communicate information from patient records to the "qualified
service organization," but only that information that is specified in the
QSOA and that is needed by the organization to provide services to the program.
Although AOD programs may enter into QSOAs with a variety of outside
organizations, they are not permittedaccording to a legal opinion of the
DHHSto enter into them with one another (unless the services offered by
one of the programs does not pertain to AOD-related services) or with law
enforcement agencies.
A program is not required to inform its patients of the QSOAs to which it is
a party.
- D.MEDICAL EMERGENCIES
Issue: Was the disclosure made properly in a medical
emergency?
- Was the alleged disclosure made:
- in response to an immediate threat to the health of any individual?
Y__ N__
- because of the need for immediate medical intervention?Y__N__
- to medical personnel? and Y__N__
- to someone who needed the patient-identifying information to treat the
medical emergency?Y__N__
- If the answer to all of these questions is "yes," go to
question 2.
- If the answer to any of these questions is "no," the
disclosure did not fall under the medical emergency rule. Stop here or determine
whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- After making the disclosure, did the program document in the
patient's record the name of the recipient and his or her affiliation with any
health care facility, the name of the individual making the disclosure, the date
and time of the disclosure, and the nature of the emergency? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was proper under the medical
emergency rule.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall under the medical
emergency rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise
authorized.
Summary of the Rule
Even without consent, patient-identifying information may be disclosed to
medical personnel in a medical emergency (§ 2.51).
A medical emergency is a situation that poses an immediate threat to the
health of any individual (it need not be the patient) and requires immediate
medical intervention. Typical examples of a medical emergency include a suicide
threat, a drug overdose, or a patient with active and infectious tuberculosis
who is not taking his or her medications.
This rule permits the program to release patient-identifying information to
medical personnel who need the information to treat the medical condition. The
program may not use the medical emergency rule to contact family members or the
police. When releasing information pursuant to a medical emergency, programs
must document the disclosure in the patient's record, setting forth the name of
the recipient and his or her affiliation with any health care facility, the name
of the individual making the disclosure, the date and time of the disclosure,
and the nature of the emergency (§ 2.51(c)).
- E.CRIMES ON PROGRAM PREMISES OR AGAINST PROGRAM PERSONNEL
Issue: Was the disclosure made in response to a crime on
program premises or against program personnel?
- Was the disclosure made in response to a crime or threatened
crime:
-
- on the program premises (against anyone)? Y__ N__
- against program personnel (anywhere)? Y__ N__
- If the answer to either question is "yes," go to question 2.
- If the answer to both questions is "no," the disclosure did
not fall under the crime on program premises or against program personnel rule.
Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the disclosure limited to the circumstances of the
incident, including the patient's name, address, last known whereabouts, and
patient status? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the rule.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall within the rule. Stop
here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the Rule
The regulations permit a program to release patient-identifying information
to the police if a patient commits or threatens to commit a crime either (i) on
the premises (against anyone) or (ii) against program staff anywhere.
When reporting such a crime, in addition to the particulars of the crime,
the program may give the police the patient's name, address, and last known
whereabouts. The program may not release to the police the names of other
patients who were victims or witnesses to the crime without those patients'
prior written consent.
This rule does not authorize disclosure of a patient's confession to a past
crime unless the crime was on the program premises or against program personnel.
- F. MANDATED REPORTS OF CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT
Issue: Was the disclosure authorized by the child abuse reporting rule?
- Was the disclosure required under the state's child abuse
and neglect reporting law? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 2.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall under the child abuse
reporting rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise
authorized.
- Did the disclosure include only the initial report and/or a
confirmation of that report? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the child abuse
reporting rule.
- If "no," the disclosure was broader than that permitted
under the child abuse reporting rule and, therefore, not permitted. Stop here or
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the Rule
In 1987, the regulations were amended to permit AOD programs to comply with
State laws requiring people in certain positions or occupations to report cases
of suspected child abuse or neglect. Accordingly, the regulations "do not
apply to the reporting under State law of incidents of suspected child abuse and
neglect to the appropriate State or local authorities" (§ 2.12(c)(6)).
Under this rule, program staff may make reports to local child abuse
hotlines and even confirm the reports in writing. However, the program's
disclosures must stop there. The regulations continue "to apply to the
original alcohol or drug abuse patient records maintained by the program
including their disclosure and use for civil or criminal proceedings which may
arise out of the report of suspected child abuse and neglect." This means
that although a program may make State-mandated child abuse reports, patient
files must be withheld from child protection agencies absent patient consent or
a court order.
- G. RESEARCH
Issue: Was the disclosure authorized under the research
rule?
- Was the disclosure made to someone doing research? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 2.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall within the research
rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Before the program made the disclosure, did the director
determine:
-
- that the researcher was qualified? Y__ N__
- that the researcher had a protocol under which the security of patient
records was assured (per § 2.16)? and Y__ N__
- that patient-identifying information would not be redisclosed? Y__ N__
- If the answer to all of the above questions is "yes," go to
question 3.
- If the answer to any of the above questions is "no," the
disclosure did not fall within the research rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the researcher provide a written statement that three or more
independent evaluators had reviewed the research protocol and determined that:
-
- the rights and welfare of the patients concerned would be
adequately protected? and Y__ N__
- the potential benefits of the research outweighed the risks to patient
confidentiality? Y__ N__
- If the answer to both of the above questions is "yes," the
program's disclosure was authorized by the research rule. (See Section V to
determine whether the researcher also complied with the law.)
- If the answer to either of the above questions is "no," the
disclosure did not fall within the research rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the rule
A program may allow a researcher to have access to its patients' records
under the following circumstances:
First, the program director must determine (i) that the researcher is
qualified, (ii) that the researcher has a protocol under which the security of
patient records is assured (per § 2.16), and (iii) that patient-identifying
information will not be redisclosed.
In addition, the researcher must provide a written statement that three or
more independent evaluators have reviewed the research protocol and determined
that the rights and welfare of the patients concerned will be adequately
protected and that the potential benefits of the research outweigh the risks to
patient confidentiality (§ 2.52(a)).
If a researcher satisfies the above standard, the researcher may proceed but
is barred from redisclosing patient-identifying information except back to the
program itself. No report may identify any individual patient (§ 2.52(b)).
- H. AUDIT AND EVALUATION
Issue: Was the disclosure authorized under the audit and
evaluation rule?
- Was the disclosure made to any of the following: a Government agency
that funds or regulates the program? Y__ N__
-
- a private person or agency that provides financial
assistance or third-party payments to the program? Y__ N__
- a peer-review organization that performs utilization or quality control
review? or Y__ N__
- a person that the program director determined to be "qualified"
to conduct the audit or evaluation? Y__ N__
- If the answer to any of the questions is "yes," go to question 2.
- If the answer to all of the questions is "no," the disclosure did
not fall within the audit and evaluation rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Was the purpose of the disclosure to enable the oversight
entity to conduct the audit or evaluation of the program? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 3.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall within the audit and
evaluation rule. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise
authorized.
- Did the auditor or evaluator agree in writing that it would
redisclose patient-identifying information only:
-
- back to the program? or Y__ N__
- to a Government agency that is overseeing a Medicare or Medicaid audit or
evaluation? Y__ N__
- If the answer to both questions is "yes," go to question 4.
- If the answer to either question is "no," the disclosure did
not fall within the audit and evaluation rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the auditor or evaluator agree in writing to use the
information only:
-
- for the audit or evaluation? or Y__ N__
- pursuant to a court order to investigate or prosecute the program (not a
patient)? Y__ N__
- If the answer to both questions is "yes," go to question 5.
- If the answer to either question is "no," the disclosure did
not fall within the audit and evaluation rule. Stop here or determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the program copy for or give the auditor or evaluator
any records containing patient-identifying information for the auditor or
evaluator to remove from the program premises? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 6.
- If "no," stop here because the program's disclosure to the
auditor or evaluator was authorized by the audit and evaluation rule.
- Was the auditor or evaluator a:
-
- Government agency that funds or regulates the program? Y__
N__
- private person or agency that provides financial assistance or third-party
payments to the program? or Y__ N__
- peer-review organization that performs utilization or quality control
review? Y__ N__
- If the answer to any of the above questions is "yes," go to
question 7.
- If the answer to all of the above questions is "no" (i.e.,
the auditor or evaluator was merely someone whom the director determined was "qualified"
to conduct an audit or evaluation), the program was not authorized, under the
audit and evaluation exception, to permit the auditor or evaluator to copy or
remove records. Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise
authorized.
- Prior to copying or removing patient records, did the
auditor or evaluator agree in writing to:
-
- maintain the patient-identifying information in accordance
with the security requirements provided in § 2.16 of the regulations (or
more stringent requirements)? Y__ N__
- destroy all patient-identifying information upon completion of the audit or
evaluation? and Y__ N__
- comply with the limitations on disclosure and use specified in §
2.53(d)? (Section 2.53(d) provides that any person or organization that conducts
an audit or evaluation must agree in writing that it will redisclose
patient-identifying information only (i) back to the program or (ii) to a
Government agency that is overseeing a Medicare or Medicaid audit or evaluation.
Such person or organization must also agree in writing to use the information
only for the audit or evaluation or pursuant to a court order to investigate or
prosecute the program (not a patient).) Y__ N__
- If the answer to all of the above questions is "yes," the
program was authorized, under the audit and evaluation rule to permit the
copying or removal of records. (See Section V to determine whether the auditor
or evaluator complied with the regulations.)
- If the answer to any of the above questions is "no," the
program was not authorized under the audit and evaluation rule to permit the
copying or removal of records. You may determine whether the disclosure was
authorized under another rule. In addition, see Section V to determine whether
the auditor or evaluator complied with the regulations.
Summary of the Rule
Government agencies that fund or regulate a program, private persons that
provide financial assistance or third-party payments to a program, peer-review
organizations that perform utilization or quality control review, and persons
whom the program director determines are "qualified" may have access
to program records for audits or evaluations of the program (§ .53).
Examples of such funding or oversight agencies include Government agencies that
administer the Medicaid program and that contract with AOD programs, insurance
and managed care companies, and State agencies that license and regulate AOD
programs.
Any person or organization that conducts an audit or evaluation must agree
in writing that it will redisclose patient-identifying information only (i) back
to the program, or (ii) to a Government agency that is overseeing a Medicare or
Medicaid audit or evaluation. Such person or organization also must agree in
writing to use the information only for the audit or evaluation or pursuant to a
court order to investigate or prosecute the program (not a patient) (§
2.53(c) and (d)).
The agencies listed in the first paragraph above also may copy or remove
records, but only if they agree in writing to (i) safeguard the confidentiality
of patient-identifying information in accordance with the security requirements
of § 2.16 of the regulations (or more stringent requirements), (ii) destroy
all such information on completion of the audit or evaluation, (iii) redisclose
patient-identifying information back to the program or to a Government agency
that is overseeing a Medicaid or Medicare audit or evaluation, and (iv) not use
the information except for purposes of the audit or evaluation or to investigate
or prosecute criminal or other activities as authorized by a court order entered
under § 2.66 (§ 2.53(b)-(d)). Thus a State regulatory agency could
not obtain patient records pursuant to an audit and then store them permanently
on a computer database.
Any other person or organization determined by the program director to be "qualified"
and that pledges in writing to observe the restrictions on redisclosure and use
that are specified two paragraphs above may also inspect patient records for
audit or evaluation purpose without consent. Only the agencies listed in the
first paragraph, however, may copy or remove records.
- I. COURT ORDERS
Issue: Was the disclosure made in response to a valid court
order?
- Did the program make the disclosure in response to an order that
states it was issued under the Federal confidentiality regulations (42 C.F.R.
Part 2) and was signed or issued by a court? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 2.
- If "no," the disclosure did not fall under the court order rule.
(Recall that a subpoena, search warrant, or arrest warrant, in and of itself, is
not a court order that meets the requirements of 42 C.F.R. Part 2. For arrest or
search warrants, proceed to Section IV to determine whether the program's
response was proper.) Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was
otherwise authorized.
- Did the program itself apply for the court order (as opposed
to a third party who wanted the information from the program)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 3.
- If "no," go to question 7.
- Did the program's application use a fictitious name for the
patient? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 5.
- If "no," go to question 4.
- Did the patient sign a valid consent authorizing the use of
his or her name in the application? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 5.
- If "no," the application for the court order was not
authorized by the court order rule. Stop here or determine whether it was
otherwise authorized by the regulations.
- Did the program give the patient adequate notice of the
application for the court order as well as an opportunity to make a written
response or to appear in person for the limited purpose of responding to the
application? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 7.
- If "no," go to question 6.
- Was the disclosure sought for the purpose of investigating
or prosecuting the patient for a crime? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the program did not need to give the patient
notice. Go to question 7.
- If "no," stop here because the failure to provide the notice
renders the program's application improper under the regulations, or determine
whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- Did the program disclose only that information described in
the court order? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the disclosure was authorized by the court order
rule.
- If "no," the program's disclosure was broader than that
allowed under the "court order" rule and, therefore, not permitted.
Stop here or determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the Rule
A Federal, State, or local court may authorize a program to make a
disclosure of patient-identifying information. A court may issue such an order,
however, only after following certain procedures and making certain
determinations specified in the regulations (§ 2.63-2.67). A subpoena,
search warrant, or arrest warrant, even when it is signed by a judge, is not
sufficient, by itself, to require or even permit a program to make a disclosure
(§ 2.61).
For guidance on how to respond to search and arrest warrants, see Section
IV. When faced with a subpoena, a program may contact the patient referenced in
the subpoena and seek the patient's consent to release the subpoenaed
information. Alternatively, a program may contact the party that issued the
subpoena and attempt to persuade the party to seek a proper court order. If that
fails, the program could move to quash the subpoena.
With respect to court orders, the applicant for the court order must follow
certain procedures, such as using a fictitious name, like John Doe, to refer to
any patient (unless the patient has consented to the use of his or her real
name). In addition, the applicant generally must give the program and the
patient "adequate notice" of an opportunity to file a written response
to the application or appear in person for the limited purpose of responding to
the application (§ 2.64(a) and (b)). If the court order was requested in
order to criminally investigate or prosecute a patient, however, the patient
need not receive notice. (§ 2.65) Likewise, if the court order was
requested in order to criminally prosecute or investigate the program, the
program need not receive notice (§ 2.66).
This checklist is limited to those requirements for which AOD programs can
properly be held accountable (i.e., the program made no disclosure until and
unless a court ordered it to do so under the Federal regulations, and the
program only disclosed the information listed in the court order). (The AOD
program and its lawyer also are responsible for properly filing a request for a
court order if the program initiates the application.) AOD programs cannot be
held accountable for procedural or substantive errors made by a court,
prosecuting attorney, and so on. This is not to suggest, however, that the
program should not take steps to ensure that a third party who seeks a court
order has followed the proper procedures, such as providing proper notice and
holding a hearing with respect to whether the disclosure should be made.
Furthermore, the program and/or the patient concerned could file an appeal if
the court issued the order improperly.
IV. RESPONDING TO SEARCH AND ARREST WARRANTS
Issue: Did the AOD program respond appropriately to a search or arrest
warrant?
- When law enforcement officials contacted the program, did the program
attempt to persuade the officials to obtain a court order (as discussed in
Section III.I)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go question 2.
- If "no," there may have been a violation of the regulations
if the program provided patient-identifying information.
- If the law enforcement officials insisted on entry, did the
program either:
-
- point out the patient sought in the arrest warrant? or Y__
N__
- provide the records sought in the search warrant? Y__ N__
- If the answer to either question is "yes," there may have
been a violation of the regulations.
- If the answer to both questions is "no," there likely was no
violation of the regulations.
Summary of the Rule
As discussed in Section III.I, neither a search warrant nor an arrest
warrant, in and of itself, constitutes the type of court order authorized under
the regulations. Consequently, programs may not disclose patient-identifying
information in response to such warrants.
On the other hand, the regulations do not require a program to forcibly
resist a law enforcement officer who insists on entry. The DHHS has ruled that
when faced with an arrest or search warrant without a valid court order,
programs generally should:
- produce a copy of the regulations and explain that they cannot
cooperate with law enforcement unless they obtain a court order;
- try to get time to notify a lawyer;
- ask to contact the prosecuting attorney or commanding officer so that
the program can repeat its arguments; and
- try other appeals to reason.
If all of the above fail, programs should not forcibly resist. They may
permit the law enforcement officials to enter, but they should not point out the
patient sought in the arrest warrant or the records sought in the search
warrant.
V. DISCLOSURES BY THIRD PARTIES
Issue: Did a third party who received patient-identifying
information from an AOD program redisclose it without authorization?
Third-Party Payers
- Did a third-party payer (e.g., insurance company) redisclose
patient-identifying information it received from a program?1 Y__
N__
- If "yes," go to question 2.
- If "no," go to question 4.
- Did the third-party payer receive the patient-identifying
information pursuant to the audit and evaluation rule? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 11.
- If "no," go to question 3.
- Was the redisclosure authorized by one of the rules
discussed in Section III? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the redisclosure was authorized by the
regulations.
- If "no," stop here because the redisclosure was not
authorized by the regulations.
Entities With Administrative Control Over Programs
- Did an entity with administrative control over a program
redisclose patient-identifying information it received from the program
(pursuant to the internal communications rule discussed in Section III.B)? Y__
N__
- If "yes," go to question 5.
- If "no," go to question 6.
- Was the redisclosure authorized by one of the rules
discussed in Section III? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the redisclosure was authorized by the
regulations.
- If "no," stop here because the redisclosure was not
authorized by the regulations.
Consent
- Did a third party redisclose patient-identifying information
that it received from an AOD program pursuant to a valid consent form (discussed
in Section III.A)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 7.
- If "no," go to question 8.
- Did the third party receive a "notice prohibiting
redisclosure" from the AOD program? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the third party's redisclosure was not authorized
by the consent rule. Stop here or consult the other parts of Section III to
determine whether the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If "no," the redisclosure was authorized and the third party
was not bound by the regulations unless the third party was also bound by a QSOA
or the research or audit and evaluation rules. Go to question 8 to determine
whether any of those rules apply.
QSOAs
- Did a third party redisclose patient-identifying information
that it received from an AOD program pursuant to a QSOA (discussed in Section
III.C)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," the redisclosure was not authorized by the QSOA
rule. Stop here or consult the other parts of Section III to determine whether
the disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If "no," go to question 9.
Research
- Did a third party redisclose patient-identifying information
that it received from an AOD program under the "research" rule
(discussed in Section III.G)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 10.
- If "no," go to question 11.
- Did the third-party researcher:
-
- redisclose patient-identifying information to someone other
than back to the program itself? Y__ N__
- issue a report that identified any individual patient? Y__ N__
- If the answer to either question is "yes," the third party's
redisclosure was not authorized by the research rule (see Section III.G). Stop
here or consult the other parts of Section III to determine whether the
disclosure was otherwise authorized.
- If the answer to both questions is "no," stop here because
the third-party researcher did not violate the regulations.
Audit and Evaluation
- Did a third party redisclose patient-identifying
information that it received from an AOD program pursuant to the audit and
evaluation rule (discussed in Section III.H)? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 12.
- If "no," stop here because the regulations do not apply.
- Did the third-party auditor or evaluator comply with the
written agreement (see Summary of the Rule for Section III.H to:
-
- redisclose patient-identifying information only (i) back to
the program or (ii) to a Government agency overseeing a Medicare or Medicaid
audit or evaluation? and Y__ N__
- use the information only for the audit or evaluation or pursuant to a court
order to investigate or prosecute the program? Y__ N__
- If the answer to both questions is "yes," go to question 13.
- If the answer to either question is "no," the auditor or
evaluator violated the regulations.
- Did the auditor or evaluator copy or remove patient records
from the program? Y__ N__
- If "yes," go to question 14.
- If "no," stop here because the auditor or evaluator complied
with the regulations.
- Did the auditor or evaluator comply with the written
agreement (see Summary of the Rule for Section III.4) to:
-
- maintain the patient-identifying information in accordance
with the security requirements provided in § 2.16 of the regulations (or
more stringent requirements)? Y__ N__
- destroy all patient-identifying information on completion of the audit or
evaluation? and Y__ N__
- comply with the limitations on disclosure and use specified in §
2.53(d)? Y__ N__
- If the answer to all of the questions is "yes," the
auditor's or evaluator's copying or removal of records was authorized by the
audit and evaluation rule.
- If the answer to any of the questions is "no," the
auditor's or evaluator's copying or removal of records was not authorized by the
audit and evaluation rule. Stop here or consult the other parts of Section III
to determine whether the copying or removal of records was otherwise authorized.
Summary of the Rule
As discussed in Sections III.A, C, G, and H, third parties who receive
patient-identifying information from AOD programs pursuant to consent forms,
QSOAs, or the research or audit and evaluation rules are generally prohibited
from redisclosing it. This section will not repeat the details regarding
redisclosure under these rules (see Summary of the Rule for Sections III.A, C,
G, and H).
In addition, the regulations require third-party payers who receive
patient-identifying information from programs to comply with the regulations,
regardless of whether they received a notice prohibiting redisclosure (§
2.12(d)(2)(i)).
Likewise, entities with direct administrative control over programs, which
receive information from programs pursuant to the internal communications'
exception (see Section III.B), must abide by the disclosure restrictions in the
regulations (§ 2.12(d)(2)(ii).
Note, however, that the prohibitions against redisclosing information
obtained from an AOD program apply to the information actually received from the
AOD program and not from the patient. For example, if a third party receives
patient-identifying information from an AOD program, and the patient
self-discloses the identical information to the third party, the third party can
redisclose the information. This is because the third party is not redisclosing
information it received pursuant to the consent form or QSOA, but rather,
information it received from the patient.
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